Posted in Christian Living by Pastor John Fresia
This paper pertains to the Biblical view of divorce and remarriage. All scriptures that I will list refute remarriage and are emphatic concerning this, not allowing any basis for remarriage. All the scriptures should be read together in context. Read the gospel scriptures together to see their consistency and harmony. The following are New Testament verses and are very clear concerning these matters. The only passage that is repeatedly misinterpreted and some use to find loopholes is Mt 19:9. These individuals discount the other texts by misrepresenting Jesus’ meaning in Mt 19. I will explain this passage contextually, but first here is a list of the other verses that should be studied: (Lu 16:18; Ro 7:2-3;1Co 7:10-11, 16, 39; Mr 10:2-12; Mt 5:32; Eph 5:31-32).
A contextual look at Mt 19:3-9:
(Verse 3) – Pharisees tempting Jesus by questioning God’s eternal divine order - “Is it lawful for a man to put away his wife for every cause?” (verse 4) He answered, “Have ye not read that He which made them at the beginning made them male and female” (verse 5) “for this cause shall a man cleave to his wife: and they twain shall be ONE FLESH?” (verse 6) “Wherefore they are no more twain, but one flesh, what therefore God hath joined together let not man put asunder.” (verse 7) “They say unto Him, Why did Moses then command (UNWARRANTEDLY asserted by Pharisees) to give a writing of divorcement and to put her away?” NOTE: This directly refers back to De 24:1-4 which is a product of man. It was a penal permission and was not originally part of God’s eternal law of marriage as stated in Ge 2:24 nor was this ever given as a blessing from God. Verse 8 covers – For the cause of fornication: “He saith unto them, Moses because of the hardness of your hearts suffered you to put away your wives: but from the beginning it was not so.” Note: God’s will in the beginning before the Law of Moses – two become ONE FLESH. Also Jer 3:1, “They say…” - again it was not God, but was for the hardness of their hearts and was a temporary concession suffered for a limited time only! This passage is referring back to De 24:1-4. Some laws were punitive and were “not good” (Eze 20 especially verses 18-25). God never said not to take those wives back again; ‘they’ said it. Conclusion: Can I divorce for fornication? Answer: No!
Verse 9 covers – Every other cause except fornication: “And I say unto you, whosoever (every married person) shall put away his wife, except it be for fornication, and marry another, commits adultery and whoso marrieth her which is put away doth commit adultery.” This passage is dealing with all other causes that one could think of to divorce. The reason for the clause except it be for fornication in (verse 9) is because Jesus is excluding it here because He covered fornication in (verse 8). This is often misinterpreted by liberals as an allowance. We can conclude that in both (verse 8) and (verse 9) Jesus has given no endorsement for divorce for any cause. The second part of (verse 9) gives no concession for remarriage and this passage thus harmonizes with all other New Testament passages covering this subject. Jesus covered the total divorce and remarriage question here in Mt 19:8-9. He covered all situations, all causes. The answer to the question, “Can I divorce for any cause?” The conclusion Jesus gives is No! Can I remarry? The answer is No! Exception being only upon the death of spouse (Ro 7:2-3and 1Co 7:39).
Let me expand a bit more on Mt 19:3-9. Please notice in (verse 3) the Pharisees are only addressing the question of divorce to Jesus. They say nothing about remarriage, so to stay in proper context the subject of remarriage is not addressed. Also notice in (verse 3), the Pharisees ask Jesus “is it lawful for a man to put away his wife for every cause?” The question is not only for fornication, but the many other reasons that many use to “put away” a spouse. Ultimately Jesus will answer the total question of “every cause.” Jesus’ answer in (verses 4-6) is all the answer that should have been required. (Verse 6) is pretty emphatic,“what therefore God has joined together let no man put asunder.” However, the Pharisees were not content with that all encompassing answer, just like many today are not content with that all encompassing answer, so they proceed to (verse 7). When they ask Jesus this question concerning Moses and the commandment of divorcement, this immediately refers back to De 24:1-4 which deals with uncleanness as the reason for divorce. The Hebrew word “uncleanness” used in De 24:1 is the same word used in Le 20:11, “uncovered father’s nakedness” also in Le 18:8, “nakedness of father’s wife.” Therefore the reason for divorcement in De 24:1 is what the New Testament calls “fornication”. Jesus comes back with His answer in (verse 8), which deals with the question of divorce for fornication. Again His answer is very emphatic, “from the beginning it was not so.” There is no loophole here, no wiggle room whatsoever.
Jesus completes the answer in (verse 9) to cover everything else when He says, “except it be for fornication,” the actual Greek text reads “if it be not for fornication.” Jesus in (verse 8) is addressing the direct question of fornication that the Pharisees posed to Him in (verse 7). In (verse 9) Jesus addresses all the other reasons some would use for divorce not counting fornication or except it be for fornication, or the literal Greek if it be not for fornication. Jesus’ answer is still an emphatic No!! Bottom line is that putting away a spouse with the intent to remarry using Mt 19:9, Jesus gives an emphatic no!! Those who try to use this passage for remarriage are unbiblical, as the passage doesn’t speak to remarriage, only divorcement, and, of course, Jesus says No to divorce.
A final note to think about concerning (verse 9). Why would Jesus say, “from the beginning it was not so” and then turn around in (verse 9) and say I forgot to tell you, I have an exception. Jesus doesn’t double talk. He hates divorce and He always will, there are no exceptions.
Passages that will further clarify the Marriage, Divorce, and Remarriage question and Mt 19:8-9 are: (Jer 3:1, 14, 22; Hos 2:7, 3:1; Mal 2:14-16; Isa 54:5-8).
These scriptures basically teach Reconciliation of the sinning spouse. In God’s way of thinking divorce does not dissolve or sever a lawful marriage. In Hosea, for example, God told Hosea to take back the defiled Gomer. The difference in response with Hosea was that he did not have a hard heart and did not look to De 24:1-4 as an escape.
Penal Permission: They were told in Eze 20:18 not to follow the statutes of their fathers, but because of rebellion God gave them some statutes originating with their fathers which directly conflicted with the law of God. These statutes were “not good” and gave them what they wanted. This is an example of God’s righteous retribution and punitive judgment for rebellion (verses 18-25) and those involved would suffer the consequence of their sin of unforgiveness and hard-heartedness. This is similar to God giving the Israelites quail in place of manna Nu 11 because of their lust which was accompanied by a plague (verse 34).